A question from Oliver's Sample test

Submitted by nvkvani on Wed, 01/30/2013 - 05:59

 Hi Can someone please let me know the reason behind the answer in the below Question..

 

 

Post-mortem analysis after scheduled finish date of a project shows a CPI of 0.8 

and an SPI of 1.25. What is a plausible explanation for that?

1. The project was terminated early. At that time, it was over budget and ahead 

of schedule.

2. The project has produced additional deliverables which were originally not 

required.

3. The project has evidently been finished under budget and behind of schedule.

4. The project has evidently been finished over budget and ahead of schedule.

 

Answer is 1.

 

Where is the indication in the question that project was terminated early?

 

Thanks,

Vani

 

Forums: 
PMP / CAPM exam Question bank
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raza82

Wed, 01/30/2013 - 07:48

At the end of project SPI =EV/PV = 1 if the project is closed 

and  at the end of project SPI wont be 1 only in the case where  project is terminated.

So we can figure out that the project was terminated

 

Anyways u can find some discussion here for this topic

 

http://pmp.groupsite.com/beta/discussion/topics/303089/messages

nvkvani

Wed, 01/30/2013 - 09:35

 Thanks that clarified the doubt.

sspawar

Thu, 01/31/2013 - 01:55

 SPI = 1.25 it means work was in running condition and was closed. hence terminated.

SPI  = 1 when EAC , and BASELINE is updated at completion