Closing question
Submitted by pmasp1 on Fri, 12/02/2011 - 02:06
Post-mortem analysis after scheduled finish date of a project shows a CPI of 0.8
and an SPI of 1.25. What is a plausible explanation for that?
o The project was terminated early. At that time, it was over budget and ahead
of schedule.
o The project has produced additional deliverables which were originally not
required.
o The project has evidently been finished under budget and behind of schedule.
o The project has evidently been finished over budget and ahead of schedule.
Forums:


support@mypmpex...
Fri, 12/02/2011 - 02:53
Permalink
I would say answer is
I would say answer is 'D'
Schedule performance Index (SPI) = EV/PV is an indicator whether the project is on time
Cost performance Index(CPI) = EV/AC is an indicator whether the project is incurring expenses more than(CPA<1)/less than(CPI >1)/ equal to (CPI = 1)the budget allotted at that stage.
Hope this helps-
RP
Pracitce exam on:
mypmpexamprep.com
kmrk
Fri, 12/02/2011 - 02:55
Permalink
I will go with "B", the other
I will go with "B", the other three answers dosnt look good.
I can assume that since it has performed some additional deliverables its ahead of schedule and some extra cost has been spent.
pls correct if iam wrong.
kmrk
Fri, 12/02/2011 - 22:13
Permalink
Hey, iam curious to know the
Hey, iam curious to know the answer, pls. help.
dalrsmith
Fri, 12/02/2011 - 23:52
Permalink
I would say D. If the CPI is
I would say D. If the CPI is below 1, this indicates that they are over-budget. If the SPI is above 1, this indicates that they are ahead of schedule. These two coincide with option D.
For example, this could have happened because of hiring talented, but expensive staff, to do the job... which cost more than the budget allowed, but they finished in an effective manner, since they are talented, which would complete the project ahead of schedule.
I could be completely wrong.
kmrk
Sat, 12/03/2011 - 02:50
Permalink
You are correct, me too go
You are correct, me too go with "D"
namalki
Sat, 12/03/2011 - 07:28
Permalink
The answer is A, the trick is
The answer is A, the trick is with the word Post-mortem which means after death that means the projetct is actully terminated early and the rest abut CPI and SPI is clear.
kmrk
Sat, 12/03/2011 - 08:06
Permalink
Make sense.
Make sense.
dalrsmith
Sat, 12/03/2011 - 10:59
Permalink
Didn't think about that.
Didn't think about that. Why are these so tricky lol
namalki
Sat, 12/03/2011 - 12:21
Permalink
Indeed, I start to believe
Indeed, I start to believe that some questions if not the majority have to do with language more than asking about project management. If exam questions are direct, I think PMP certificate won't be ranked no. 4 respected certificate and PMI would not gain that much revenue lol!
mrfr0sty
Sat, 12/03/2011 - 14:03
Permalink
It's A. I got the same
It's A. I got the same question on my PMP today.
krantikumar50
Fri, 03/02/2012 - 10:24
Permalink
Answer is..
The Answer is A. Excellent thought process by Namalki. Very well thought. I would have gone with D too but then no wonder it is said READ EVERY WORD OF THE QUESTION CAREFULLY. in this question the catch phrase was post-mortem!!!