Why Target price in this question
Hello,
I have solved question from a leading PMP book.
Your company has a cost plus incentive fee contract with the vendor. The contract has the target cost of $200,000 and a target fee set at 25% of the total. If the target price is $300,000, the share ratio between buyer and the vendor is set at 70/30. and the actual cost of the contract is $350,000. How much does the vendor make on this contract?
solution:
Find the incentive:
Incentive= (Target cost-actual cost)x vendor share percentage
= (200,000-350,000)x30/100 = -$45,000
Overhead fee= target profit+incentive
= (0.25x200,000)+-45,000=$5000
Contract cost: actual cost+overhead fee
= 350,000+5000= $355,000
I have two doubts on this question:
1. what is the use of " target price $300,000" in this question?
2. Question asked " how much does the vendor make on this contract?" . Does it mean the profit for the contractor? In that case ; will the answer be $5000 instead of $355,000?
Kindly help


sspawar
Sun, 05/05/2013 - 02:13
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What are the options given
What are the options given ?
it seems 300000 is a upper cap price (cilieng price)
otherwise it has no meaning.
and if it is UCP then contractor will make
300000-350000 = -50000 (loose 50000) , no need of above calculation.
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pmpcracker
Sun, 05/05/2013 - 02:59
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Dear Pawar,The options
Dear Pawar,
The options given are
A.$ 300,000
B.$350, 000
C. $355,000
D.$ 415, 000
As you said if it is the ceiling price the contractor will incur a loss of $ 50 000
Now I have another quetion:
Can we expect unnecessary information in questions like this? and if it is so , wont the answer be 5000(355 000-350 000)?