Recently, I saw a question in one of the PDF 200 q mock exams about Residual Risk.

And there were 2 answers that seemed correct:

A) You cannot implement any Risk Response to Residual Risk since it is the remaining risk after all your risk response plans

B) you should Respond to Residual Risk

I selected B because I thought that in the worst case you will passively accept that risk which is also a Response.

Now I see that probably A is intended answer just because of wording: Passive Acceptance can probably be called No Response Plan

Nevertheless, are we 100% sure that no response can be taken for Residual Risk?

Can we conclude that Residual Risk is always passively accepted?

Is there a way to actively accept it like allocating contingency reserve? Does it still remain its Residual Risk status after that?