Question regarding CPI and SPI

Submitted by aaryajeet on Tue, 12/23/2014 - 07:37
Post-mortem analysis after scheduled finish date of a project shows a CPI of 0.8 and an SPI of 1.25. What is a plausible explanation for that?92
o The project was terminated early. At that time, it was over budget and ahead of schedule.
o The project has produced additional deliverables which were originally not required.
o The project has evidently been finished under budget and behind of schedule.
o The project has evidently been finished over budget and ahead of schedule.
 
The above is the question from Oliver Lehman 175 Question, the answer for the above question is the 1st Option. what i want to know is how can i come to know if the project was terminated early or was it finished, since i have to make  decision on Option 1 and Option 4.
 
Thanks
Aaryajeet
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aaryajeet

Tue, 12/23/2014 - 08:53

I believe the option 1 is the right answer, since the project has been completed and still the CPI is 0.8, had the project been completed both CPI and SPI would have been 1.

Please correct me if the above explaination is incorrect

Shaan23

Tue, 12/23/2014 - 18:47

Option A seems the correct answer. As at the end of the project Planned value will be equal to Earned value making SPI=1. The question has SPI >1.

kniraj

Wed, 12/24/2014 - 07:29

Answer is A as rightly mentioned by all. SPI will be always once since the EV=PV when the project is completed i.e. all work is done (does not matter if more costs were incurred or it was late - ultimately it was completed). Refer PMBOK 5 page 218.