Why??? for this answer

Submitted by vikasmisra on Sun, 04/08/2012 - 06:34

Post mortem earned value analysis of a project showed the following data: SPI: 0.78 CPI: 1.00 What is this telling you?

The correct answer (as per the book) is
o The project has been terminated before completion. At that time it was behind schedule and on budget

How do we know if the project was terminated and not completed??
 

 

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pmp_man

Sun, 04/08/2012 - 06:39

Post mortem ALWAYS means the project is terminated. ->>>> That Simple


This is typical PMP type question.

vikasmisra

Sun, 04/08/2012 - 06:49

Thanks Man. I somehow missed this concept and I saw this question coming up few times at different places.

krantikumar50

Sun, 04/08/2012 - 10:57

Thanks PMP_MAN. No doubt, its so simple, but many, like me, would have never thought of this. Thank You so much for clarifying. I would always wonder how does one derive that the project was terminated early. Now, I know that since the question mentioned post-mortem, so here we are. Thanks much, KK....

projmanpro

Sun, 04/08/2012 - 22:23

This is the exact analysis and complete explanation :

postmortem means "after death" which in the project imply "termination". Showing the SPI = 0.78 which is <1 (meaning behind schedule) and the CPI = 1 (meaning on budget).

Thus, the correct answer is - the project has been terminated before completion at the time it was behind schedule (SPI<1) and on budget (CPI=1).

Vikas, you have to consider well and detailed explanations to questions if you are looking for a good PMP exam sample questions.