PMP Exam question

Submitted by mateusmorato on Mon, 05/09/2011 - 11:20

Hi,


I've seen questions like this one and I wonder what is the best approach to solve it.


You have 60% of change of winning U$ 10.000 and 40% change of losing U$ 8.000. What is
the most probable financial outcome?


Can someone help?


Thanks in advance


Mateus

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PMPBOY

Mon, 05/09/2011 - 23:21

here is the solution:


10,000 x .6 = 6,000 [as winning chances are @60%.]


8,000 x .4 = 3,200 [as losing chances are @40%.]


so financial outcome will be 6,000 - 3,200 = 2,800.