FPIF contract - is it really a FIXED PRICE Contract

Hi

 

In a fixed-price, incentive-fee contract, there is  incentive for the seller to increase or decrease costs.

My question is here , then in what respect it is fixed.

It is similar of CPIF contract.

If time will favor me , I will put example of both cases and it will show you - similar in all results.

Further PTA is considered in case of FPIF (sources -wikipedia), while both FPIF and CPIF give similar results with their respective traditional formula/calculations.

Regards

admin's picture

CPIF has least risk for seller, since all his cost will be reimbursed, plus he gets IF.

FPIF has more risk for seller, since the cost may go beyond the stated Fixed price. IF may not cover for losses in all cases.

Hi,


As Mr.Pawar said, it would be good to see it with an example, atleast from calculation perspective.


From perspective of contracts itself, the major difference in FP and CR is:



  • In FP contractor agree to deliver in full on the negotiated price which is pre-determined. That is why scope should be clear in this case.

  • In CR contractor agrees to provide its best effort to complete the required contract and actual cost incurred to the extent of the work done is reimbursed. This accomdates uncertainity in scope.

While the Incentive part in both these contracts more or less serve the same purpose - that is to Control the costs. Incentives as we know are based on performance mostly on cost, schedule and performance incentives. In any contract there may be more than one incetive included.


In FPIF: As Mr.Pawar puts if Incentive is used to control costs, then what is fixed? Incentive clause is put so that there are no high profit margins the seller puts in the FIxed Price part. If there is no incentive clause put, the buyer might end up paying more, as seller would have put high profit margins, which otherwise would be less when paid with incentives. Also in FPIF, the buyer will not know actual costs.


PTA for FPIF? Since the buyer do not know the actual costs and have no control over it.


In CPIF since buyer agrees to reimburse all the incurred costs, there is no PTA, but fee has a range of maximum and minimum fee.


I am just setting a context here, may be basis for further discussion with example from Mr.Pawar.


Regards,


Anand KL, PMP


 

Dear Admin and Anand

You may take any example at your level, and just change its term - c versus f.

And solve accordingly , what is difference nothing.

This q I earlier raised in DEEPFRIEDBRAIN, over a readily available example.

you may look upon there.

Without incentive its ok but after incentive both are similar.

http://pmzilla.com/search/node/chandra%20fpif

see this link many problem, many confusions - people are solving sometimes by FPIF sometimes by CPIF

regards