Cost Remimbursable Contract: share ratio question
Submitted by falcios on Sun, 08/11/2013 - 22:17
Your company has negotiated a cost plus incentive fee agreement with a vendor. The contract target costs is set at $300,000. The vendors target profit is 10%, and the share ratio is 80/20 in favor of the company. The actual costs of the project is $275,000. What is the total cost of the contract to the vendor?
My question is the 80/20 share ratio in favor of the company: it doesn't specify which company the buyer or the seller. Which percentage refers to buyer and which refers to seller?
Thanks for the help.
Forums:


pmbrett
Mon, 08/12/2013 - 02:30
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Remember
Remember this: B/S!
Buyer/Seller....thats it! The buyer ratio on the left, the seller on the right. Thats ALWAYS how it is, unless otherwise specified in the question- this is a contracting standard. If your calculating the cost for the buyer, use the left side, for the seller/vendor/contractor use the right. Since we are calculating the seller or vender cost, use the left.
1) $300K-$275K = $25K Target cost - Actual Cost. We want to see how shitty or awesome the vendor/contractor/sellor performed vs the target or goal cost to find out their fee that they get paid.
2) .20 x $25K = $5K Seller Share ratio x amount seller is above or below the target or goal cost.
3) $5K + $30K = $35K in profit. 10% of 300K is 30K (the 30K is the target fee...fee is also profit, just called fee went dealing with a cost type contract). Add the $5K to the $30K, and boom! Thats the fee amount.
4) $275 + $35K = $310K In a cost contract, you pay the contractor for all applicable costs incurred (unless there is a stated not to exceed NTE cost), PLUS the fee. In a CPIF contract, as above, we calculate fee as done in steps 1 through 3, after performance is over, or at specified milestones.
The total amount the contractor will be paid is $310K, $35K of which is the fee, and the $275K is the vendors incurred cost.
Some notes for everyone:
-In a cost type contract (CPFF, CPIF, etc), you pay the contractor for all costs actually incurred, PLUS the fee.
-In a CPFF contract, the fee is based on a % of the original estimate
-In a CPIF contract, the fee is simply calculated based on a share ratio and the target cost, which is then added to the target fee. If the seller goes over aka they perform shitty, then that amount will just be a negative figure. For example if the vendor had actual costs of $310K, then you would do $300K - $310K, and it would be -$10K, then -$10K x .20 = -2K, then add to $30K, and the amount of fee is $28K...Finally add that to the $275K, and boom you have a total cost.
-PTA IS ONLY FOR FPIF CONTRACTS!! Not CPIF. "Ceiling price" only applies to FPIF contracts also.
-Sometimes CPIF contracts will have a min and a max fee, to limit the end fee amount paid. Only applies to CPIF.
-Any other contracting questions let me know.....I got you!
By the way, I had NO contracting math questions on the actual PMP exam, and I HIGHLY doubt you will too. So do not sweat it to much. You are better off understanding when to use what contract type...prob 8-15 questions on the exam about when to use what contract type.
falcios
Mon, 08/12/2013 - 10:42
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Thanks for the info and couple more questions
Thanks - great info.
In this example they use target cost and target price interchangeably - it's confusing.
PTA for CR Example
In a CR contract, the target cost is $300,000 with a target fee of 10%. The maximum price is $350,000 and the buyers negotiated share ratio is 80%. What is the point of total assumption for this agreement?
Step 1: Determine the target fee which is 10% of the target cost; or, $30,000
PTA = target cost + [ (ceiling price – (target price + target fee) ) /buyers percent of share ratio]]= $300,000 + [ ($350,000 – ($300,000 + $30,000)) / 0.8 ]= $325,000
pmbrett
Tue, 08/13/2013 - 00:44
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Ok, some sick academic wrote
Ok, some sick academic wrote this question lol.
Its basically a hybrid FPIF/CPIF contract. Its possible you could see something like this in the real world, but unlikely. You definitly will not have any questions like this on the exam.
The "maximum price" and PTA are what makes this a Fixed price contract, yet paying the contractor for all costs incurred makes it a cost type contract.
Fee and profit are used interchangeably, but fee normally is the term used for cost type contracts...profiit for fixed.
PTA = ((ceiling price - target price)/buyers share ratio) + target cost
Just plug in play from there.
BTW, maximum price is another term for ceiling price.
In contracting, ceiling price is the point at which the seller/contractor does not get paid any more money..basically the seller is screwed at that point if they are not finished lol
pmbrett
Tue, 08/13/2013 - 00:59
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In retrospect, this is not
In retrospect, this is not even a CR contract. It is entirely a FPIF contract. The people that wrote the question made a typo...
In the contracting world, a ceiling price or max price are components of an FPIF, and the PTA only applies to FPIF.
-Brett, PMP