Clearfication on Olivermann's question

Hi all,
I had few doubt in some answer from Olivermann's list, here is one:

Q. Post-mortem analysis of a project shows a CPI of 0.8 and an SPI of 1.25 what is a plausible explanation for that?

A. His answer was first choice, but I had choice #4. How do we know this project was terminated? is this because of the word Post-mortem?




o The project was terminated early. At that time, it was over budget and ahead of schedule.

o The project has produced additional deliverables which were originally not required.

o The project has evidently been finished under budget and behind of schedule.

o The project has evidently been finished over budget and ahead of schedule.

May be because of word "post mortem. Because if the project would have been completed, they might have used word 'analysis' or 'review' etc.

For me, there is no meaning of such wordy questions. It is not going to help you in real field.



omidamiri's picture


I am suspecting that if the question points out to the cumulative SPI and CPI then we can think of project completion instead of termination. But in this particular question there is no indication to cumulative CPI and SPI. That's my understanding and I have no proof for it.



Completed project would always have SPI = 1. CPI could be anything. Hence option 4 & 3 is not the answer. Option 2 there is no evidence in question. So the answer is option 1.


Project Post Mortem can done for successful/failed projects to know what went wrong/what went well. Its an audit of a closed project.